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Appeal Judgement - 29.07.2004 |
BLAŠKIĆ Tihomir (IT-95-14-A) |
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32. […] The issue which the Appeals Chamber will address is whether a standard of mens rea that is lower than direct intent may apply in relation to ordering under Article 7(1) of the Statute, and if so, how it should be defined. 41. Having examined the approaches of national systems as well as International Tribunal precedents, the Appeals Chamber considers that none of the Trial Chamber’s above articulations of the mens rea for ordering under Article 7(1) of the Statute, in relation to a culpable mental state that is lower than direct intent, is correct. The knowledge of any kind of risk, however low, does not suffice for the imposition of criminal responsibility for serious violations of international humanitarian law. The Trial Chamber does not specify what degree of risk must be proven. Indeed, it appears that under the Trial Chamber’s standard, any military commander who issues an order would be criminally responsible, because there is always a possibility that violations could occur. The Appeals Chamber considers that an awareness of a higher likelihood of risk and a volitional element must be incorporated in the legal standard. 42. The Appeals Chamber therefore holds that a person who orders an act or omission with the awareness of the substantial likelihood that a crime will be committed in the execution of that order, has the requisite mens rea for establishing liability under Article 7(1) pursuant to ordering. Ordering with such awareness has to be regarded as accepting that crime.[1] See also para. 345 et seq. [1] The French translation of this legal standard reads as follows: Quiconque ordonne un acte ou une omission en ayant conscience de la réelle probabilité qu’un crime soit commis au cours de l’exécution de cet ordre possède la mens rea requise pour établir la responsabilité aux termes de l’article 7 alinéa 1 pour avoir ordonné. Le fait d’ordonner avec une telle conscience doit être considéré comme l’acceptation dudit crime. |
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Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 29.07.2004 |
BLAŠKIĆ Tihomir (IT-95-14-A) |
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The Appeals Chamber considered that the existing standards on appeal necessitated a “further examination”.[1] It first noted the standard of review when additional evidence has been admitted on appeal set out by the Appeals Chamber in Kupreškić: The test to be applied by the Appeals Chamber in deciding whether or not to uphold a conviction where additional evidence has been admitted before the Chamber is: has the appellant established that no reasonable tribunal of fact could have reached a conclusion of guilt based upon the evidence before the Trial Chamber together with the additional evidence admitted during the appellate proceedings.[2] The Appeals Chamber then considered that: 23. However, if in a given case, the outcome were that a reasonable trier of fact could reach a conclusion of guilt beyond reasonable doubt, the Appeals Chamber considers that, when the Appeals Chamber is itself seized of the task of evaluating trial evidence and additional evidence together, and in some instances in light of a newly articulated legal standard, it should, in the interests of justice, be convinced itself, beyond reasonable doubt, as to the guilt of the accused, before confirming a conviction on appeal. […] The Appeals Chamber then summarised the “standard of review to be applied on appeal by the International Tribunal in relation to findings challenged only by the Defence, in the absence of a Prosecution appeal”: 24. (a) The Appeals Chamber is confronted with an alleged error of fact, but the Appeals Chamber has found no error in the legal standard applied in relation to the factual finding. No additional evidence has been admitted on appeal in relation to that finding. The Appeals Chamber will determine whether no reasonable trier of fact could have reached the conclusion of guilt beyond reasonable doubt. If a reasonable trier of fact could have reached such a conclusion, then the Appeals Chamber will affirm the finding of guilt. (b) The Appeals Chamber is confronted with an error in the legal standard applied in relation to a factual finding, and an error of fact has been alleged in relation to that finding. No additional evidence has been admitted on appeal in relation to that finding. The Appeals Chamber will apply the correct legal standard to the evidence contained in the trial record, and will determine whether it is itself convinced beyond reasonable doubt as to the finding of guilt. (c) The Appeals Chamber is confronted with an alleged error of fact, and – contrary to the scenario described in (a) – additional evidence has been admitted on appeal. There is no error in the legal standard applied in relation to the factual finding. There are two steps involved. The Appeals Chamber will first determine, on the basis of the trial record alone, whether no reasonable trier of fact could have reached the conclusion of guilt beyond reasonable doubt. If that is the case, then no further examination of the matter is necessary as a matter of law. If, however, the Appeals Chamber determines that a reasonable trier of fact could have reached a conclusion of guilt beyond reasonable doubt, then the Appeals Chamber will determine whether, in light of the trial evidence and additional evidence admitted on appeal, it is itself convinced beyond reasonable doubt as to the finding of guilt. (d) The Appeals Chamber is confronted with an error in the legal standard applied in relation to the factual finding and an alleged error of fact, and – contrary to the scenario described in (b) – additional evidence has been admitted on appeal. There are two steps involved. (i) The Appeals Chamber will apply the correct legal standard to the evidence contained in the trial record, and will determine whether it is itself convinced beyond reasonable doubt as to the finding of guilt, on the basis of the trial record. If it is not convinced, then no further examination of the matter is necessary as a matter of law. (ii) If, however, the Appeals Chamber, applying the correct legal standard to the evidence contained in the trial record, is itself convinced beyond reasonable doubt as to the finding of guilt, it will then proceed to determine whether, in light of the trial evidence and additional evidence admitted on appeal, it is itself still convinced beyond reasonable doubt as to the finding of guilt. See also the Partial Dissenting Opinion of Judge Weinberg de Roca. [1] Para. 8. [2] Kupreškić Appeal Judgement, para. 75. |
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Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 29.07.2004 |
BLAŠKIĆ Tihomir (IT-95-14-A) |
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62. The Appeals Chamber considers that the Čelebići Appeal Judgement has settled the issue of the interpretation of the standard of “had reason to know.” In that judgement, the Appeals Chamber stated that “a superior will be criminally responsible through the principles of superior responsibility only if information was available to him which would have put him on notice of offences committed by subordinates.”[1] Further, the Appeals Chamber stated that “[n]eglect of a duty to acquire such knowledge, however, does not feature in the provision [Article 7(3)] as a separate offence, and a superior is not therefore liable under the provision for such failures but only for failing to take necessary and reasonable measures to prevent or to punish.”[2] There is no reason for the Appeals Chamber to depart from that position.[3] The Trial Judgement’s interpretation of the standard is not consistent with the jurisprudence of the Appeals Chamber in this regard and must be corrected accordingly. [1] Čelebići Appeal Judgement, para. 241 (emphasis added) (footnote omitted). The standard as interpreted in the Čelebići Appeal Judgement has been applied in the Bagilishema Appeal Judgement, para. 42, and in the Krnojelac Appeal Judgement, para. 151. [2] Čelebići Appeal Judgement, para. 226. [3] Aleksovski Appeal Judgement, para. 107. The Appeals Chamber has previously stated in the Aleksovski Appeal Judgement that “a previous decision of the Chamber should be followed unless there are cogent reasons in the interests of justice for departing from it.” Aleksovski Appeal Judgement, para. 128. Elaborating on this principle, the Appeals Chamber stated that: “[i]nstances of situations where cogent reasons in the interest of justice require a departure from a previous decision include cases where the previous decision has been decided on the basis of a wrong legal principle or cases where a previous decision has been given per incuriam, that is a judicial decision that has been “wrongly decided, usually because the judge or judges were ill-informed about the applicable law.” Aleksovski Appeal Judgement, para. 108. |
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Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 29.07.2004 |
BLAŠKIĆ Tihomir (IT-95-14-A) |
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69. The Appeals Chamber also notes that the duty of commanders to report to competent authorities is specifically provided for under Article 87(1) of Additional Protocol I, and that the duty may also be deduced from the provision of Article 86(2) of Additional Protocol I.[1] The Appeals Chamber also notes the Appellant’s argument that to establish that effective control existed at the time of the commission of subordinates’ crimes, proof is required that the accused was not only able to issue orders but that the orders were actually followed. The Appeals Chamber considers that this provides another example of effective control exercised by the commander. The indicators of effective control are more a matter of evidence than of substantive law,[2] and those indicators are limited to showing that the accused had the power to prevent, punish, or initiate measures leading to proceedings against the alleged perpetrators where appropriate.[3] […] [1] Article 86(2) provides: “The fact that a breach of the Conventions or of this Protocol was committed by a subordinate does not absolve his superiors from penal or disciplinary responsibility, as the case may be, if they knew, or had information which should have enabled them to conclude in the circumstances at the time, that he was committing or was going to commit such a breach and if they did not take all feasible measures within their power to prevent or repress the breach.” [2] Aleksovski Appeal Judgement, paras. 73-74; Čelebići Appeal Judgement, para. 206. [3] Aleksovski Appeal Judgement, para. 76. |
Other instruments Additional Protocol I: Article 86(2); 87(1) | |
Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 29.07.2004 |
BLAŠKIĆ Tihomir (IT-95-14-A) |
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83. […] Disciplinary or penal action can only be initiated after a violation is discovered, and a violator is one who has already violated a rule of law. Further, it is illogical to argue both that “a superior’s responsibility for the failure to punish is construed as a sub-category of his liability for failing to prevent the commission of unlawful acts,” and that “failure to punish only led to the imposition of criminal responsibility if it resulted in a failure to prevent the commission of future crimes.”[1] The failure to punish and failure to prevent involve different crimes committed at different times: the failure to punish concerns past crimes committed by subordinates, whereas the failure to prevent concerns future crimes of subordinates. 85. In the view of the Appeals Chamber, the Trial Chamber did not err in finding to the effect that the responsibility of a commander for his failure to punish was recognised in customary law prior to the commission of crimes relevant to the Indictment. […] [1] Appellant’s Brief, [Prosecutor v. Tihomir Blaškić, Case No.: IT-95-14-A, Appellant’s Brief on Appeal (confidential), 14 January 2002; the revised, redacted version was filed on 4 July 2002.] p. 146. |
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Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 29.07.2004 |
BLAŠKIĆ Tihomir (IT-95-14-A) |
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135. The Appeals Chamber considers that “although persecution often refers to a series of acts, a single act may be sufficient, as long as this act or omission discriminates in fact and was carried out deliberately with the intention to discriminate on one of the listed grounds.”[1] Furthermore, the acts underlying persecutions as a crime against humanity, whether considered in isolation or in conjunction with other acts, must constitute a crime of persecutions of gravity equal to the crimes listed in Article 5 of the Statute.[2] 138. The Appeals Chamber considers that the Trial Chamber failed to mention that acts of persecutions, considered separately or together, should reach the level of gravity of other crimes listed in Article 5 of the Statute. It appeared to consider, erroneously, that underlying acts are rendered sufficiently grave if they are committed with a discriminatory intent. [1] Vasiljević Appeal Judgement, para. 113. [2] Krnojelac Appeal Judgement, paras. 199, 221. |
ICTR Statute Article 3(h) ICTY Statute Article 5(h) | |
Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 29.07.2004 |
BLAŠKIĆ Tihomir (IT-95-14-A) |
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148. The prohibition against pillage may therefore be considered to be part of customary international law. In addition, it may be noted that the Nuremberg Charter[1] and Control Council Law No. 10[2] prohibited the war crime of “plunder of public and private property,” and the crime of pillage was the subject of criminal proceedings before the International Military Tribunal at Nuremberg and other trials following the Second World War, where in certain cases, it was charged both as a war crime and a crime against humanity.[3] There may be some doubt, however, as to whether acts of plunder, in and of themselves, may rise to the level of gravity required for crimes against humanity.[4] 149. The Appeals Chamber finds that the destruction of property, depending on the nature and extent of the destruction, may constitute a crime of persecutions of equal gravity to other crimes listed in Article 5 of the Statute. [1] Article 6(b) (Annex to the Agreement for the Prosecution and Punishment of Major War Criminals of the European Axis (London Agreement)), London, 8 Aug. 1945, 85 U.N.T.S. 251. [2] Law No. 10 of the Control Council of Germany, Art. 2(1)(b) (Official Gazette of the Control Council for Germany, No. 3, p. 22, Military Government Gazette, Germany, British Zone of Control, No. 5, p. 46, Journal Officiel du Commandement en Chef Francais en Allemagne, No. 12 of 11 Jan. 1946). [3] See The Pohl Case, Vol. V TWC, p. 958 ff; The IG Farben Case, Vol. VIII TWC, p. 1081 ff; The Krupp Case, Vol. IX TWC, p. 1327 ff; The Flick Case, Vol. VI TWC, p. 1187 ff. [4] In The Flick Case, the Nuremberg Military Tribunal found that the compulsory taking of industrial property did not constitute crimes against humanity. The Tribunal stated: The “atrocities and offenses” listed [in Law No. 10] “murder, extermination,” etc., are all offenses against the person. Property is not mentioned. Under the doctrine of ejusdem generis the catch-all words “other persecutions” must be deemed to include only such as affect the life and liberty of the oppressed peoples. Compulsory taking of industrial property, however reprehensible, is not in that category. The Flick Case, Trials of War Criminals Before the Nürnberg Military Tribunals Under Control Council Law No. 10, Vol. 6, p. 1215. In the Eichmann case, the Israeli District Court held that the plunder of property could only be considered to constitute a crime against humanity if it was committed “by pressure of mass terror against a civilian population, or if it [was] linked to any of the other acts of violence defined by the [Nazi and Nazi Collaborators Punishment Law, 5710/1950] as a crime against humanity or as a result of any of those acts, i.e. murder, extermination, starvation, or deportation of any civilian population, so that the plunder is only part of a general process…” The Individual in International Law, in International Law Reports, E. Lauterpacht, ed., vol. 36, London (1968), p. 241. However, the Rome Statute is expansive in its definition of crimes which may fall under persecution; Art. 7(1)(h)(4) states that “The conduct was committed in connection with any act referred to in article 7, paragraph 1, of the Statute or any crime within the jurisdiction of the Court.” Pillaging constitutes a war crime under Art. 8(2)(e)(v) of the Rome Statute. The Appeals Chamber is aware, however, that the Rome Statute entered into force after the crimes at issue in this case took place. |
ICTR Statute Article 3(h) ICTY Statute Article 5(h) | |
Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 29.07.2004 |
BLAŠKIĆ Tihomir (IT-95-14-A) |
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160. The Appeals Chamber considers that a Trial Chamber, when making a determination on a charge of persecutions, is obliged to assess whether the underlying acts amount to persecutions as a crime against humanity in international customary law. Upon consideration of the Trial Chamber’s outline of the applicable law on persecutions, it is evident that the Trial Chamber did not consider the requirement that acts of persecutions must be of an equal gravity or severity as the other acts enumerated under Article 5 of the Statute; it is not enough that the underlying acts be perpetrated with a discriminatory intent. […] |
ICTR Statute Article 3(h) ICTY Statute Article 5(h) | |
Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 29.07.2004 |
BLAŠKIĆ Tihomir (IT-95-14-A) |
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151. The Appeals Chamber notes that the Trial Chamber appears to use the terms deportation and forcible transfer interchangeably. The Geneva Conventions prohibit forcible transfers and deportation. Article 49 of Geneva Convention IV provides that “[i]ndividual or mass forcible transfers, as well as deportations of protected persons from occupied territory to the territory of the Occupying Power or to that of any other country, occupied or not, are prohibited, regardless of their motive.” Article 147 of Geneva Convention IV, listing grave breaches to which Article 146 relates, refers to “unlawful deportation or transfer or unlawful confinement of a protected person.” Article 85 of Additional Protocol I prohibits “the transfer by the occupying Power of parts of its own civilian population into the territory it occupies, or the deportation or transfer of all or part of the population of the occupied territory within or outside this territory in violation of Article 49 of the Fourth Convention.” In addition, Article 17 of Additional Protocol II provides: 1. The displacement of the civilian population shall not be ordered for reasons related to the conflict unless the security of the civilians involved or imperative military reasons so demand. Should such displacements have to be carried out, all possible measures shall be taken in order that the civilian population may be received under satisfactory conditions of shelter, hygiene, health, safety and nutrition. 2. Civilians shall not be compelled to leave their own territory for reasons connected with the conflict. 152. The Appeals Chamber in the Krnojelac case held that: Forcible displacements, taken separately or cumulatively, can constitute a crime of persecution of equal gravity to other crimes listed in Article 5 of the Statute. […] The Appeals Chamber concludes that displacements within a state or across a national border, for reasons not permitted under international law, are crimes punishable under customary international law, and these acts, if committed with the requisite discriminatory intent, constitute the crime of persecution under Article 5(h) of the Statute.[1] 153. In light of the foregoing analysis and jurisprudence, the Appeals Chamber considers that at the time relevant to the Indictment in this case, deportation, forcible transfer, and forcible displacement constituted crimes of equal gravity to other crimes listed in Article 5 of the Statute and therefore could amount to persecutions as a crime against humanity. [1] Krnojelac Appeal Judgement, paras. 221-222. The separate opinion of Judge Schomburg appended to that judgement calls for the direct application of “deportation”, punishable under Article 5(d) of the Statute. |
ICTR Statute Article 3(h) ICTY Statute Article 5(h) | |
Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 29.07.2004 |
BLAŠKIĆ Tihomir (IT-95-14-A) |
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186. It is, therefore, evident, both from the text of Article 4(2)[1] and the accompanying Commentary, that for Article 4(2) to be relevant, it must be demonstrated, first, that the States were allies, and second, that they enjoyed effective and satisfactory diplomatic representation with each other. In contrast, the Appellant submits that the Trial Chamber should have ignored the fact that “HVO and ABiH forces, at times, fought each other” and looked simply at the “formal diplomatic relations” between the two States.[2] Such an approach is not only inconsistent with the object and purpose of Article 4 of Geneva Convention IV, that is, “the protection of civilians to the maximum extent possible”,[3] but also conflates the distinction between co-belligerence and diplomatic representations. 187. The Appellant makes no attempt to reconcile the apparent contradiction between the status of belligerent and that of co-belligerent, but instead refers the Appeals Chamber to allegedly “uncontroverted evidence establishing co-belligerence and diplomatic relations” between the two States.[4] The language of Article 4 of Geneva Convention IV is not so elastic as to allow the conclusion that two States could simultaneously be allies and belligerents with each other. In this case, the States of Croatia and Bosnia-Herzegovina were engaged in a conflict against each other. This, in itself, establishes that they were not co-belligerents within the meaning Article 4(2) for the purpose of crimes arising out of that conflict. [1] It provides: “Nationals of a State which is not bound by the Conventions are not protected by it. Nationals of a neutral State who find themselves in the territory of a belligerent State, and nationals of a co-belligerentState, shall not be regarded as protected persons while the State of which they are nationals has normal diplomatic representation in the State in whose hands they are.” [2] Appellant’s Brief, p. 181. [3] Tadić Appeal Judgement, para. 168. [4] Appellant’s Brief, p. 181. |
Other instruments Geneva Convention IV: Article 4(2) | |
Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 09.07.2004 |
NIYITEGEKA Eliézer (ICTR-96-14-A) |
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53. The words “as such,” [in Article 2(2) of the ICTR Statute] however, constitute an important element of genocide, the “crime of crimes.”[1] It was deliberately included by the authors of the Genocide Convention in order to reconcile the two diverging approaches in favour of and against including a motivational component as an additional element of the crime. The term “as such” has the effet utile of drawing a clear distinction between mass murder and crimes in which the perpetrator targets a specific group because of its nationality, race, ethnicity or religion.[2] In other words, the term “as such” clarifies the specific intent requirement. It does not prohibit a conviction for genocide in a case in which the perpetrator was also driven by other motivations that are legally irrelevant in this context. Thus the Trial Chamber was correct in interpreting “as such” to mean that the proscribed acts were committed against the victims because of their membership in the protected group, but not solely because of such membership. See also paragraphs 49–52. [1] Prosecutor v. Kambanda, ICTR-97-23-S, Judgement and Sentence, 4 September 1998, para. 16; Prosecutor v. Jelisić, IT-95-10-A, Judgement, 14 December 1999, Partial Dissenting Opinion of Judge Wald, para. 2. [2] See William A. Schabas, Genozid im Völkerrecht (2003), pp. 340-341; William A. Schabas, Genocide in International Law (2000), pp. 254-255. |
ICTR Statute Article 2(2) | |
Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 09.07.2004 |
NIYITEGEKA Eliézer (ICTR-96-14-A) |
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30. Pursuant to Rule 66(A)(ii) of the Rules, the Prosecutor has a duty, inter alia, to make available to the Defence copies of the statements of all witnesses whom the Prosecutor intends to call to testify at trial. The Appeals Chamber notes that neither the ICTR nor ICTY has provided a clear definition of the term “statement.” In particular, the jurisprudence has not made a clear distinction between “statements” and “internal documents prepared by a party [which] are not subject to disclosure or notification”[1] under Rules 66 and 67 of the Rules.[2] 31. A record of a witness interview, ideally, is composed of all the questions that were put to a witness and of all the answers given by the witness. The time of the beginning and the end of an interview, specific events such as requests for breaks, offering and accepting of cigarettes, coffee and other events that could have an impact on the statement or its assessment should be recorded as well. 32. Such an interview must be recorded in a language the witness understands. As soon as possible after the interview has been given, the witness must have the chance to read the record or to have it read out to him or her and to make the corrections he or she deems necessary and then the witness must sign the record to attest to the truthfulness and correctness of its content to the best of his or her knowledge and belief. A co-signature by the investigator and interpreter, if any, concludes such a record. 33. Records of questions put to witnesses by the Prosecution and of the answers given constitute witness statements pursuant to Rule 66(A)(ii) of the Rules. It is necessary to disclose the questions put to the witness in order to make the statement intelligible. This obligation also follows from the fair trial guarantees stipulated in Articles 19 and 20 of the Statute. Furthermore, an accused must have access to the questions put to the witness in order to be able to prepare for cross-examination properly. At times, it may be impossible to assess the probative value of the witness’s answer without juxtaposing it with the relevant question. This may also affect a Chamber’s assessment of the credibility of the witness and the reliability of a testimony in its development. The record of the first interview with a witness is of the highest value because it is most likely to capture the witness’s recollection accurately, being closest in time to the events and less vulnerable to any subsequent influence. 34. Questions that were put to a witness – thus being part of the witness statement – have to be distinguished from “internal documents prepared by a party”,[3] which are not subject to disclosure under Rule 70(A) of the Rules, as an exception to the general disclosure obligation pursuant to Rule 66(A)(ii) of the Rules. A question once put to a witness is not an internal note any more; it does not fall within the ambit and thereby under the protection of Rule 70(A) of the Rules. If, however, counsel or another staff member of the Prosecution notes down a question prior to the interrogation, without putting this question to the witness, such a question is not subject to disclosure. Similarly, any note made by counsel or another staff member of the Prosecution in relation to the questioning of the witness is not subject to disclosure, unless it has been put to the witness. 35. The fact that a particular witness statement does not correspond to the standard set out above does not free a party from its obligation to disclose it to the other party pursuant to Rule 66(A)(ii) of the Rules. Furthermore, a witness statement which does not correspond to the standard set out above does not necessarily render the proceedings unfair. The Prosecution is obliged to make the witness statement available to the Defence in the form in which it has been recorded. However, something which is not in the possession of or accessible to the Prosecution cannot be subject to disclosure: nemo tenetur ad impossibile (no one is bound to an impossibility).[4] 36. Also, a statement not fulfilling the ideal standard set out above is not inadmissible as such. Pursuant to Rule 89(C) of the Rules, a Chamber may admit any relevant evidence which it deems to have probative value. However, any inconsistency of a witness statement with the standard set out above may be taken into consideration when assessing the probative value of the statement, if necessary. [1] See Rule 70(A) of the Rules. [2] This does not of course affect the Prosecution’s obligation to disclose exculpatory material under Rule 68 of the Rules. [3] Emphasis added. [4] Black’s Law Dictionary, 7th Edition (St. Paul, West Group, 1999), Legal Maxims, p. 1662. |
ICTR Rule Rule 66(A) ICTY Rule Rule 66(A) | |
Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 09.07.2004 |
NIYITEGEKA Eliézer (ICTR-96-14-A) |
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197. Whether the Prosecution cured a defect in the indictment depends, of course, on the nature of the information that the Prosecution provides to the Defence and on whether the information compensates for the indictment’s failure to give notice of the charges asserted against the accused. Kupreškić considered that adequate notice of material facts might be communicated to the Defence in the Prosecution’s pre-trial brief, during disclosure of evidence, or through proceedings at trial.[1] The timing of such communications, the importance of the information to the ability of the accused to prepare his defence, and the impact of the newly-disclosed material facts on the Prosecution’s case are relevant in determining whether subsequent communications make up for the defect in the indictment.[2] As has been previously noted, “mere service of witness statements by the [P]rosecution pursuant to the disclosure requirements” of the Rules does not suffice to inform the Defence of material facts that the Prosecution intends to prove at trial.[3] [1] Kupreškić et al. Appeal Judgement, paras. 117-120. [2] Kupreškić et al. Appeal Judgement, paras. 119-121. [3] Prosecutor v. Brðanin and Talić, Case No. IT-99-36-PT, Decision on Form of Further Amended Indictment and Prosecution Application to Amend, 26 June 2001, para. 62. |
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Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 09.07.2004 |
NIYITEGEKA Eliézer (ICTR-96-14-A) |
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198. In considering whether a defect in the indictment has been cured by subsequent disclosure, the question arises as to which party has the burden of proof on the matter. Although the Judgement in Kupreškić did not address this issue expressly, the Appeals Chamber’s discussion indicates that the burden in that case rested with the Prosecution. Kupreškić stated that, in the circumstances of that case, a breach of “the substantial safeguards that an indictment is intended to furnish to the accused” raised the presumption “that such a fundamental defect in the … Indictment did indeed cause injustice.”[1] The defect could only have been deemed harmless through a demonstration “that [the Accused’s] ability to prepare their defence was not materially impaired.”[2] Kupreškić clearly imposed the duty to make that showing on the Prosecution, since the absence of such a showing led the Appeals Chamber to “uph[o]ld the objections” of the accused.[3] [1] Kupreškić et al. Appeal Judgement, para. 122. [2] Ibid. [3] Kupreškić et al. Appeal Judgement, paras. 124-125. |
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Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 09.07.2004 |
NIYITEGEKA Eliézer (ICTR-96-14-A) |
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199. It is noteworthy, however, that Kupreškić specifically mentioned the fact that the accused in that case had made a timely objection before the Trial Chamber to the admission of evidence of the material fact in question.[1] In general, “a party should not be permitted to refrain from making an objection to a matter which was apparent during the course of the trial, and to raise it only in the event of an adverse finding against that party.”[2] Failure to object in the Trial Chamber will usually result in the Appeals Chamber disregarding the argument on grounds of waiver. In the case of objections based on lack of notice, the Defence must challenge the admissibility of evidence of material facts not pleaded in the indictment by interposing a specific objection at the time the evidence is introduced. The Defence may also choose to file a timely motion to strike the evidence or to seek an adjournment to conduct further investigations in order to respond to the unpleaded allegation. 200. The importance of the accused’s right to be informed of the charges against him under Article 20(4)(a) of the Statute and the possibility of serious prejudice to the accused if material facts crucial to the Prosecution are communicated for the first time at trial suggest that the waiver doctrine should not entirely foreclose an accused from raising an indictment defect for the first time on appeal. Where, in such circumstances, there is a resulting defect in the indictment, an accused person who fails to object at trial has the burden of proving on appeal that his ability to prepare his case was materially impaired. Where, however, the accused person objected at trial, the burden is on the Prosecution to prove on appeal that the accused’s ability to prepare his defence was not materially impaired. All of this is of course subject to the inherent jurisdiction of the Appeals Chamber to do justice in the case.[3] [1] Kupreškić et al. Appeal Judgement, para. 123. [2] Kayishema and Ruzindana Appeal Judgement, para. 91. [3] See Kupreškić et al. Appeal Judgement, para. 122 as well as United States v. Cotton, 535 U.S. 625, 631-634 (2002), Rippingdale v. The Queen, 109 A Crim R 304 (1999), at paras. 51-55 and R. v. Nisbet, (1971) 55 Cr. App. R. 490, 499-500. |
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Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 09.07.2004 |
NIYITEGEKA Eliézer (ICTR-96-14-A) |
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14. The Tribunal’s instruments do not prescribe qualification requirements for members of the staff of the Office of the Prosecutor appearing before it. While Rule 44(A) of the Tribunal’s Rules of Procedure and Evidence (“Rules”) stipulates that a counsel engaged by a suspect or an accused “shall be considered qualified to represent a suspect or accused, provided that he is admitted to the practice of law in a State, or is a University professor of law,” the Rules and other instruments of the Tribunal contain no corresponding qualification provision for Prosecution counsel. In consequence, the integrity of the trial process before the Tribunal cannot be undermined, per se, by the status a Prosecution counsel may or may not have as a member of the bar in any State. |
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Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 09.07.2004 |
NIYITEGEKA Eliézer (ICTR-96-14-A) |
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16. […] [Counsel Pollard] was entitled to exercise such powers of the Prosecutor as have been entrusted to her under Rule 37(B) of the Rules. In the exercise of such powers, Counsel Pollard was required to adhere to the standards of professional conduct set out in Regulation No. 2 [Prosecutor’s Regulation No. 2, Standards of Professional Conduct for Prosecution Counsel (1999)]. In addition, as a staff member of the United Nations, she also had a duty to act in accordance with the Charter of the United Nations, its Staff Rules and its Staff Regulations, which include a duty to act with integrity and honesty.[1] Similar standards are imposed upon defence counsel appearing before the Tribunal who have a duty to “act honestly, fairly, skilfully, diligently and courageously”.[2] However, the Appeals Chamber stresses that the integrity of the judicial process demands that these ethical standards be applicable to all counsel appearing before the Tribunal. All counsel have a duty to adhere, as a minimum, to these ethical standards. This is independent of formal provisions or counsel’s membership of a national bar. […] 20. […] Counsel Pollard, like all Prosecution counsel, was required to follow the standards of professional conduct expected of all counsel appearing before the Tribunal in addition to those prescribed in Regulation No. 2, which include the duty to demonstrate candour before the Tribunal and not knowingly to make incorrect statements of material facts to the Tribunal.[3] It is, of course, essential that the Chambers of the Tribunal be able to rely on the integrity of counsel on both sides and that counsel be able to rely on each other’s statements.[4] Dereliction in the duty of honesty may, in appropriate cases, be cause for sanctions or for contempt proceedings. Such dereliction by Prosecution counsel may also be contrary to the Charter of the United Nations and a breach of the relevant Staff Regulations and Staff Rules. […] [1] For example, article 101 of the Charter of the United Nations provides that “The paramount consideration in the employment of the staff and in the determination of the conditions of service shall be the necessity of securing the highest standards of efficiency, competence, and integrity.” The United Nations Staff Regulations (ST/SGB/2003/5) 7/2/03, regulation 1.2 provides that “staff members shall uphold the highest standards of efficiency, competence and integrity. The concept of integrity includes, but is not limited to, probity, impartiality, fairness, honesty and truthfulness in all matters affecting their work and status.” [2] ICTR Code of Professional Conduct for Defence Counsel, 8/6/98, Introduction, point 2. [3] See Regulation No. 2, para. 2(e). [4] See R. v. Early, [2002] EWCA Crim 1904, [2003] 1 Cr App R 288 at para. 10 (“Judges can only make decisions and counsel can only act and advise on the basis of the information with which they are provided. The integrity of our system of criminal trial depends on judges being able to rely on what they are told by counsel and on counsel being able to rely on what they are told by each other. This is particularly crucial in relation to disclosure ….”). |
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Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 09.07.2004 |
NIYITEGEKA Eliézer (ICTR-96-14-A) |
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45. Following the Judgement of the ICTY Appeals Chamber in the case of Prosecutor v. Furundžija, the Appeals Chamber held in Akayesu that “there is a presumption of impartiality that attaches to a Judge or a Tribunal and, consequently, partiality must be established on the basis of adequate and reliable evidence.”[1] On appeal, it is for the appealing party to rebut this presumption of impartiality. As stated in Furundžija in respect of a reasonable apprehension of bias, the Appellant bears the burden of adducing sufficient evidence to satisfy the Appeals Chamber that the Judges were not impartial.[2] In Furundžija the ICTY Appeals Chamber held that there is “a high threshold to reach in order to rebut the presumption of impartiality” and recalled that “disqualification is only made out by showing that there is a reasonable apprehension of bias by reason of prejudgement and this must be ‘firmly established’”.[3] The Appeals Chamber recently confirmed this position in the Judgement in the case of Rutaganda v. Prosecutor.[4] [1] Akayesu Appeal Judgement, para. 91, following Furundžija Appeal Judgement, paras. 196, 197. [2] Furundžija Appeal Judgement, para. 197. [3] Furundžija Appeal Judgement, para. 197 (quoting Mason J. in Re JRL; Ex parte CJL (1986) CLR 343, p. 352). [4] See Rutaganda Appeal Judgement, paras. 39-125. |
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Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 09.07.2004 |
NIYITEGEKA Eliézer (ICTR-96-14-A) |
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96. It is not a legal error per se to accept and rely on evidence that varies from prior statements or other evidence. However, a Trial Chamber is bound to take into account inconsistencies and any explanations offered in respect of them when weighing the probative value of the evidence.[1] […] [1] See Kupreškić et al. Appeal Judgement, para. 31. |
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Notion(s) | Filing | Case |
Appeal Judgement - 09.07.2004 |
NIYITEGEKA Eliézer (ICTR-96-14-A) |
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98. The ordinary meaning of the term “accomplice” is “an associate in guilt, a partner in crime.”[1] Nothing in the Statute or the Rules of the Tribunal prohibits a Trial Chamber from relying upon testimony of those who were partners in crime of persons being tried before it. As stated above, a Chamber may admit any relevant evidence which it deems to have probative value.[2] Accomplice testimony is not per se unreliable, especially where an accomplice may be thoroughly cross-examined.[3] However, considering that accomplice witnesses may have motives or incentives to implicate the accused person before the Tribunal, a Chamber, when weighing the probative value of such evidence, is bound to carefully consider the totality of the circumstances in which it was tendered.[4] In the view of the Appeals Chamber, reliance upon evidence of accomplice witnesses per se does not constitute a legal error. [1] Oxford English Dictionary (2nd ed.). [2] See Rule 89(C) of the Rules. [3] See Media Case[Nahimana et al.]., Case No. ICTR-99-52-I, Decision on the Defence Motion Opposing the Hearing of the Ruggiu Testimony against Jean Bosco Barayagwiza, 31 January 2002, pp. 2-3. [4] See Kordić and Čerkez Trial Judgement, para. 629. See also Media Case [Nahimana et al.]. Trial Judgement, para. 824. |